Let
\[f(x) = \frac{2x + 3}{kx - 2}.\]Find all real numbers $k$ so that $f^{-1}(x) = f(x).$
From the condition $f^{-1}(x) = f(x),$ $f(f^{-1}(x)) = f(f(x)),$ which simplifies to $f(f(x)) = x.$

Note that
\begin{align*}
f(f(x)) &= f \left( \frac{2x + 3}{kx - 2} \right) \\
&= \frac{2 \cdot \frac{2x + 3}{kx - 2} + 3}{k \cdot \frac{2x + 3}{kx - 2} - 2} \\
&= \frac{2(2x + 3) + 3(kx - 2)}{k(2x + 3) - 2(kx - 2)} \\
&= \frac{4x + 6 + 3kx - 6}{2kx + 3k - 2kx + 4} \\
&= \frac{(3k + 4)x}{3k + 4} \\
&= x.
\end{align*}Thus, $f(f(x)) = x$ for all real numbers $k,$ except when $3k + 4 = 0,$ or $k = -4/3.$  Note that when $k = -4/3,$
\[f(x) = \frac{2x + 3}{kx - 2} = \frac{2x + 3}{-\frac{4}{3} x - 2} = \frac{3(2x + 3)}{-4x - 6} = \frac{3 (2x + 3)}{-2 (2x + 3)} = -\frac{3}{2},\]so $f(x)$ does not have an inverse.  Hence, the answer is $k \in \boxed{(-\infty,-\frac{4}{3}) \cup (-\frac{4}{3},\infty)}.$